1. Let's first understand the problem: You want to know if it is correct to write $AD=BE$ (by C.P.C.T) directly without stating that both triangles are congruent first. 2. C.P.C.T stands for Corresponding Parts of Congruent Triangles. It means that if two triangles are congruent, then all their corresponding sides and angles are equal. 3. Therefore, the statement $AD=BE$ (by C.P.C.T) is valid only if it is already established or given that the two triangles are congruent. 4. Writing $AD=BE$ (by C.P.C.T) without mentioning that the triangles are congruent is incomplete because C.P.C.T cannot be applied unless congruency is proven or stated. 5. So, the correct approach is to first state or prove that the triangles are congruent, and then conclude $AD=BE$ by C.P.C.T. Final answer: It is not correct to write $AD=BE$ (by C.P.C.T) directly without first stating or proving that the triangles are congruent.