Put Option Valuation
1. **Problem statement:**
An investor holds 200,000 shares of ZP limited, current share price $S_0=60$. She wants to buy European put options with exercise price $K=50$, maturity $T=2$ years, risk-free rate $r=0.12$ per annum, volatility $\sigma=0.30$. We need to find:
(i) The total cost of buying 200,000 put options.
(ii) The change in wealth if after 1 year the share price is $S=30$.
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2. **Calculate the price of one European put option using the Black-Scholes formula:**
The Black-Scholes formula for a European put option is:
$$P = Ke^{-rT}N(-d_2) - S_0 N(-d_1)$$
where
$$d_1 = \frac{\ln(\frac{S_0}{K}) + (r + \frac{\sigma^2}{2})T}{\sigma \sqrt{T}}$$
$$d_2 = d_1 - \sigma \sqrt{T}$$
and $N(\cdot)$ is the cumulative distribution function of the standard normal distribution.
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3. **Calculate $d_1$ and $d_2$:**
$$\ln(\frac{60}{50}) = \ln(1.2) \approx 0.1823$$
$$d_1 = \frac{0.1823 + (0.12 + \frac{0.3^2}{2}) \times 2}{0.3 \times \sqrt{2}} = \frac{0.1823 + (0.12 + 0.045) \times 2}{0.3 \times 1.4142} = \frac{0.1823 + 0.33}{0.4243} = \frac{0.5123}{0.4243} \approx 1.2077$$
$$d_2 = 1.2077 - 0.3 \times 1.4142 = 1.2077 - 0.4243 = 0.7834$$
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4. **Find $N(-d_1)$ and $N(-d_2)$:**
Using standard normal tables or a calculator:
$$N(-d_1) = N(-1.2077) \approx 0.113$$
$$N(-d_2) = N(-0.7834) \approx 0.217$$
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5. **Calculate the put option price $P$:**
$$P = 50 \times e^{-0.12 \times 2} \times 0.217 - 60 \times 0.113$$
Calculate discount factor:
$$e^{-0.24} \approx 0.7866$$
So,
$$P = 50 \times 0.7866 \times 0.217 - 60 \times 0.113 = 8.53 - 6.78 = 1.75$$
Price per put option is approximately 1.75.
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6. **Calculate total cost for 200,000 put options:**
$$\text{Total cost} = 200,000 \times 1.75 = 350,000$$
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7. **Calculate change in wealth if share price after 1 year is 30:**
The investor holds 200,000 shares worth $30$ each, so value of shares:
$$200,000 \times 30 = 6,000,000$$
The put option payoff at $S=30$ (exercise price $K=50$) is:
$$\max(K - S, 0) = 50 - 30 = 20$$
Value of 200,000 put options at maturity:
$$200,000 \times 20 = 4,000,000$$
Since the options mature in 2 years but the price is given at 1 year, the value at 1 year is not the full payoff but the intrinsic value plus time value. However, for simplicity, assuming the investor exercises or sells the options at 1 year at intrinsic value:
Change in wealth from buying puts:
$$\text{Gain from puts} - \text{Cost of puts} = 4,000,000 - 350,000 = 3,650,000$$
The shares have lost value from $12,000,000$ (200,000 x 60) to $6,000,000$, a loss of $6,000,000$.
Net change in wealth:
$$-6,000,000 + 3,650,000 = -2,350,000$$
So the investor's wealth decreases by 2,350,000 but the put options reduce the loss significantly.
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**Final answers:**
(i) The investor pays approximately 350,000 for 200,000 put options.
(ii) If the share price falls to 30 after 1 year, the investor's net wealth decreases by approximately 2,350,000 after accounting for the put options.